Harr Immunology, Serology & Blood Bank (ISBB) Practice Test

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• Which immunoglobulin class(es) has (have) a J chain?
• What is recommended for resolving ABO discrepancies in testing?
• Which of the following is true regarding granulocyte concentrates?
• Which statement best describes immunophenotyping?
• The absorbance of a sample measured by ELISA is greater than the highest standard. What corrective action should be taken?
• Is a 53-year-old woman who weighs 150 lb and has a hemoglobin of 13 g/dL, currently on warfarin, an acceptable donor?
• What type of immunity do antibodies primarily provide?
• What test should be ordered next for a 19-year-old girl with a sore throat and lymphadenopathy after a negative rapid test for IM antibodies?
• What test should be performed next if a 12-year-old girl has a positive RPR and a positive spot test for infectious mononucleosis?
• In an enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA), what does the inclusion of serum from healthy volunteers help to determine?
• What type of reaction occurs during a transfusion of incompatible blood group?
• What method can be employed to detect bacteria in random donor platelets?
• Given a heterophile antibody titer of 224, which of the following results indicate an error in testing?
• Why is skin testing preferred for testing a type I hypersensitivity reaction?
• Which T cell type expresses the CD8 marker and specifically kills tumor or virally infected cells?
• If a patient has the Lewis phenotype Le(a−b−) with anti-Lea presence, should anti-Lea be considered for Le(a−b+) patient with inconclusive antibodies?
• Can an autologous donor donate blood on Monday, if he is having surgery on Friday?
• What should be done next if a patient is confirmed as AB positive with mixed agglutination?
• What does a positive test for anti-double-stranded DNA (anti-dsDNA) usually indicate?
• What protocol is followed when screening whole blood donors for HIV-1 RNA?
• Would an hCG test using a monoclonal antibody against the β-subunit of hCG likely be affected by an increased level of follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)?
• When performing a crossmatch for a patient with a warm autoantibody, what unit selection should be prioritized?
• In type III immune complex reactions, which of the following tests is generally NOT expected to be abnormal?
• In an indirect ELISA, what comprises the indicator system for antibody detection?
• What should be done if a noticeable clot is found in an RBC unit?
• What is the maximum allowable time for RBCs to be transfused after rejuvenation?
• Which of the following is NOT a reason for performing an adsorption?
• Which characteristic is shared by anti-Fya, anti-Jka, and anti-K antibodies?
• If blood units are not refrigerated after leaving the blood bank, what is the primary concern?
• Which of the following comprises an abbreviated crossmatch?
• What is a potential complication of transporting specimens at incorrect temperatures?
• In the case of maternal alloimmunization, what is the key component for managing the infant?
• If a patient's red cells forward as group O but serum agglutinates B cells (4+), what should be your next step?
• Which proteins do macrophages produce during antigen processing?
• When a patient shows positive results with screening cells and multiple donor units, but has a negative autocontrol, what is the most likely antibody present?
• Which component has the longest expiration date?
• What course of action should be taken if a medical laboratory scientist inadvertently irradiates a unit of red cells twice?
• What is the titer in tube No. 8 if tube No. 1 is undiluted and dilutions are doubled?
• What is indicated by dense wide bands in both the κ and λ lanes during immunofixation electrophoresis?
• What type of exclusion occurs when a genetic marker is absent in a child but should have been transmitted by the alleged father?
• What is the primary use of PSA testing?
• For which condition is granulocyte transfusion recommended?
• What sample type is best for detecting complement-dependent antibodies?
• Which parameter is the most sensitive indicator of the effectiveness of antiretroviral treatment in HIV-infected patients?
• A patient tested negative for serum RF. What test would help in diagnosing RA?
• Which phenotype do T regulator cells, responsible for controlling autoimmune antibody production, express?
• Which test should be performed next in a suspected case of late (tertiary) syphilis after negative RPR results?
• What could explain reactive results at the IAT phase with a negative autocontrol?
• Which confirmatory test is most appropriate for determining if a pregnant woman has a recent toxoplasmosis infection?
• What should be done next after a negative streptozyme test in a patient with clinical signs of a streptococcal throat infection?
• What is the name of the process by which phagocytic cells are attracted to a substance such as a bacterial peptide?
• What is the issue if a patient sample is very viscous upon arrival in the blood bank?
• Which physical examination result is a cause for rejecting a whole-blood donor?
• If an AB negative patient is typed, but there are no AB-negative units available, what should be done?
• Which of the following statements regarding FFP is incorrect?
• When performing the crossmatch, which phase is typically most critical for assessing compatibility?
• Acquired B antigens have been found in which group of individuals?
• What steps should be taken if all forward and reverse ABO results are negative?
• Which genotype usually shows the strongest reaction with anti-D?
• What is the term used to describe an individual with no expressions of Duffy antigens?
• What component is indicated for patients who have anti-IgA antibodies?
• What is the minimum required platelet count for apheresis platelets?
• What is the first step a medical laboratory scientist should take when investigating a transfusion reaction?
• All of the following apply to a double red cell unit apheresis collection except:
• What type of antibody might persist with weak positive reactions for several panel cells?
• What is the primary advantage of autologous stem cell recovery and reinfusion?
• Which control shows the correct result for a valid ASO test?
• Interpret the following microcytotoxicity results: A9 and B12 cells damaged; A1 and Aw19 cells intact.
• Which diseases may show positive results with agglutination assays for antibodies to thyroid peroxidase?
• What type of immunodeficiency results primarily in low T cell counts due to thymic hypoplasia?
• Which donor unit is appropriate for a recipient with anti-c antibodies?
• For which of the following is anti-Lub antibody typically associated?
• When is it essential to confirm maternal antibody levels during pregnancy?
• In what scenario would a patient be classified as having AIDS according to the CDC?
• What does a weakly reactive 1:8 RPR titer indicate?
• FFP can be transfused without regard for which type?
• How does irradiation prevent transfusion associated graft-versus-host disease (TA-GVHD)?
• Which method is not approved for leukocyte reduction of red blood cells?
• What corrective action should be taken when an indeterminate pattern occurs in an indirect IFA?
• What is the general definition of autoimmunity?
• Which of the following can lead to a discrepancy in blood typing results?
• Is a woman with a reported type of O negative and a positive weak D test a candidate for RhIg?
• What screening test should be performed first in a young patient suspected of having an immune dysfunction disorder?
• An immunofluorescence microscopy assay (IFA) shows a significant antibody titer but clinical evaluation does not align with this finding. What is a likely explanation?
• What should ideally be performed when checking compatibility prior to transfusion?
• If a person has the genotype Dce/dce, how is this individual classified?
• What is the maximum number of white blood cells permitted in a unit of leukoreduced red cells?
• Which antibody would not be detected by group O screening cells?
• What could happen if a slide agglutination test is rotated for 10 minutes instead of the instructed 2 minutes?
• Which condition is characterized by the disappearance of reactions in the IAT phase?
• A patient who received 2 units of RBCs following surgery exhibits mild jaundice two weeks post-surgery. What should be done next?
• Which test should be performed if a patient has a reaction to transfused plasma products?
• What is the Wiener nomenclature for the E antigen?
• If a major crossmatch and screening cells show 2+ at IS, 1+ at 37°C, and negative at the IAT phase, what is the most likely problem?
• In the context of antibody compatibility testing, what does the term 'autocontrol' refer to?
• If tests for anti-tissue transglutaminase and anti-gliadin antibodies are negative in a patient suspected of celiac disease, which test should be ordered next?
• Interpret the following ASO results: Tube Nos. 1-4 (Todd unit 125): no hemolysis; Tube No. 5 (Todd unit 166): hemolysis.
• If a patient has an acquired B antigen, which of the following typing results is most likely?
• Which of the following conditions will most likely result in a false-negative DAT test?
• If five out of six crossmatched units are compatible and one is incompatible with a negative antibody screen, what could be the problem?
• What does an elevated carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) level after colorectal cancer treatment indicate?
• For an obstetric patient with a positive antibody screen, what is the likely reason?
• Which reaction would be identical for both A1 and A2 individuals?
• A patient types as AB positive and has ordered two units of blood. Which should be set up for the major crossmatch from the available inventory?
• If screening cells, major crossmatch, and patient autocontrol are all positive, what could be the reason?
• What marker is the first to appear in hepatitis B infection?
• A patient tested positive for syphilis by the RPR method but negative on the FTA-ABS test. Which routine laboratory test is most likely to be abnormal?
• What method can resolve an ABO discrepancy caused by anti-P1 in a patient?
• What is the crossmatching protocol for platelets and/or plasma?
• What is the correct procedure upon receipt of a test request for human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) on the serum from a 60-year-old man?
• What antibodies could an R1R1 make if exposed to R2R2 blood?
• Which individual would provide saliva that most effectively neutralizes Leb antibodies?
• Which antibodies are contained in the rabbit polyspecific antihuman globulin reagent for the detection of in vivo sensitization?
• Why might a patient in the core window phase of hepatitis B infection test positive for both HBsAg and HBsAb?
• In the ABO blood group system, which genotype corresponds to a person with type O blood?
• Which statement regarding washed RBCs is incorrect?
• What should be done if a test result exceeds the highest standard in an ELISA test?
• Which of the following is an acceptable time in which a unit of whole blood is collected?
• What has happened in a titer if tube Nos. 5-7 show a stronger reaction than tube Nos. 1-4?
• In cancer diagnosis, which test is preferred for determining high specificity against the substance of interest?
• Should a weak D test be performed on cells with a positive direct antiglobulin test?
• You conduct nucleic acid amplification testing (NAT) for which type of viruses?
• What type of serological testing is primarily used in blood banks to determine a patient's blood group?
• Which disease could yield a false-positive result if a patient also has Lyme disease?
• During a skin reaction test, what type of hypersensitivity is being evaluated?
• What is the likely reason for negative antibody tests for HIV while a polymerase chain reaction test shows positive results one week later?
• A patient was suspected of having a lymphoproliferative disorder. Which sequence of laboratory tests should be performed first?
• Which of the following statements regarding infection with hepatitis D virus is true?
• Which type of autoimmune disease is primarily characterized by organ-specific damage and can be monitored using smooth muscle antibodies?
• What must be done if a high-titer cold antibody is suspected?
• What is the clinical significance of the p24 antigen in HIV testing?
• What is the primary route of transmission for hepatitis A?
• How many full doses of RhIg are indicated if a Kleihauer-Betke test identifies 40 fetal cells in 2000 maternal red cells?
• A weak D test that reacts 1+ after indirect antiglobulin testing is classified how?
• What condition precludes a donor from being accepted for plateletpheresis?
• What is not a requirement for the electronic crossmatch procedure?
• All of the following are functions of immunoglobulins except:
• What is a characteristic of multiple myeloma found in serum analysis?
• What is one possible genotype for a patient who develops anti-C antibody?
• What does the presence of HBeAg indicate in a patient with hepatitis B?
• Which enhancement medium decreases the zeta potential to facilitate interaction between antibody and antigen?
• Cryoprecipitate may be used to treat all of the following, except?
• What is the consequence of selecting the wrong gate when counting cells by flow cytometry?
• Which in vitro test measures specific IgE levels against an allergen?
• What should be done if a patient had a previously identified antibody and receives incompatible blood?
• Which antibody is most likely to show a dosage effect during identification?
• Which antibody type is primarily elevated in allergic reactions?
• Given a heterophile antibody titer of 224, which of the following results indicate infectious mononucleosis (IM)?
• Which immune cell type is primarily affected in Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome?
• Given a heterophile antibody titer of 224, which of the following results indicate serum sickness?
• What is an advantage of performing a prostate-specific antigen (PSA) test for prostate cancer?
• Which condition is often ruled out by performing a rheumatoid factor test?
• When evaluating an ELISA assay against an immunofluorescent test with only 60% correlation, what should be the next step?
• What is the first step when a panel study identifies patient alloantibodies?
• Which disease is likely to show a rim (peripheral) pattern in an IF microscopy test for ANA?
• Which method is used to confirm the specificity of weakly reactive antibodies in serum?
• From a mating between AO and BO individuals, which blood type is not a possible outcome for their offspring?
• Which devices may be used to deplete incompatible plasma from type O apheresis platelets to serve a transplant patient?
• Which marker indicates immunity to a hepatitis B infection?
• If a dialysis patient tests positive for both hepatitis B surface antigen and surface antibody, which explanation is most accurate?
• A blood supplier ships 3 units of pooled cryoprecipitate. Each pool consists of 5 units of cryoprecipitate. If one unit is thawed at 5:00 p.m., when must it be dispensed from the blood bank?
• Which of the following is true regarding acute normovolemic hemodilution?
• Which condition might be indicated by the presence of antibodies to smooth muscle?
• What laboratory test is essential to assess in patients with suspected systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)?
• What is the importance of running a saline control in forward grouping?
• Why is anti-M considered a potential complication in blood transfusions?
• What is the purpose of antigen typing patient cells prior to a major crossmatch?
• What percentage of red cells must be retained in leukocyte-reduced red cells?
• Why are IgM antibodies effective in causing visible agglutination of red blood cells?
• What is the most possible Rh genotype for a patient showing certain Anti-D and Anti-e results?
• Which type of bonds are involved in the interaction between an individual antigen and antibody molecule?
• What is the disposition of a unit that tests positive for syphilis using the rapid plasma reagin test (RPR) but is negative with the confirmatory test?
• The DAT result of Baby Boy Jones indicates a positive test. What does this imply about the mother's eligibility for RhIg?
• Which test would best differentiate between SLE and mixed connective tissue disease (MCTD)?
• Which is the first antibody detected in serum after infection with hepatitis B virus (HBV)?
• What type of transfusion reaction is indicated by symptoms of tachycardia, hypertension, and urinalysis showing hematuria?
• What is a common use of immunophenotyping?
• What is the primary purpose of leukocyte reduction in blood products?
• What is the significance of detecting high avidity in an antibody response?
• Which intervention is NOT appropriate for addressing fetal distress due to maternal antibodies?
• Which specimen is the sample of choice to evaluate latent or tertiary syphilis?
• Which immunoglobulin is primarily involved in mucosal immunity?
• What antibody is typically involved in a type II transfusion reaction for a patient with blood group O transfused with group A blood?
• What is the significant characteristic of HTLA antibodies?
• What antibody is suspected if a serum tests positively with all cell types but negatively with cord cells?
• Which mediators may be increased within 72 hours after an initial infection?
• Which immunization has the longest deferral period for blood donation?
• Which situation is not a cause for indefinite deferral of a donor?
• What corrective action should be taken when rouleaux causes positive test results?
• What indicates the need for further investigation in antibody identification?
• Which statement best describes passive agglutination reactions used for serodiagnosis?
• Which immunoglobulin is predominantly present in mucosal areas?
• Which laboratory finding supports the diagnosis of autoimmune disorders based on serum protein electrophoresis?
• What is not included in the preliminary evaluation of a transfusion reaction?
• What could have caused the weakly positive DAT in the infant born to an O-negative mother with a B-positive blood type?
• In the case of a discrepancy in blood product identification, what is the first step to take?
• The T-cell antigen receptor is similar to immunoglobulin molecules in that it:
• In the context of positive DAT results from a recently transfused patient, which procedure is most appropriate for identifying the antibody?
• What is the purpose of diluting a sample that shows an indeterminate pattern in an IFA?
• In what situation would a final crossmatch be avoided?
• How are cytotoxic T cells (Tc cells) and natural killer (NK) cells similar?
• When may an IS crossmatch be performed?
• Which disease is least likely when a nucleolar pattern occurs in an immunofluorescence test for antinuclear antibodies?
• In an emergency trauma situation, when will compatibility testing be performed after releasing O-negative blood?
• Which test is not required on donor blood?
• What is the most likely explanation for a weakly positive DAT in a B-positive baby born to an O-negative mother?
• How can interfering anti-P1 antibody be removed from a mixture of antibodies?
• A whole-blood donor currently on clopidogrel (Plavix) is precluded from donating which product?
• What types of cells are produced after B cell activation by an antigen?
• What is the role of urinary cytology in the diagnosis of BK virus?
• What type of antibodies are present in patients exhibiting immediate hemolytic transfusion reactions?
• What type of red cells can be transfused to an O-negative patient?
• A patient's specimen is strongly positive in an ANA ELISA. Which of the following would not be an appropriate follow-up?
• Which antibodies are represented by the nucleolar pattern in the immunofluorescence test for antinuclear antibodies?
• What would happen if the color reaction phase is prolonged in an ELISA test?
• What is the inheritance pattern for most blood group antigens?
• What is the primary function of MHC class I molecules?
• Which of the following is a characteristic of IgG?
• A patient had a prostate-specific antigen level of 60 ng/mL before surgery with readings of 8 ng/mL the week after. What is the likely cause of these results?
• What phenomenon occurs when excessive antibody prevents a precipitation reaction from occurring?
• What does the CH50 assay measure?
• Which of the following individuals is acceptable as a blood donor?
• Which immunoglobulin can cross the placenta?
• What distinguishes A1 blood group from A2 blood group?
• In an immunocompromised patient, how does their blood group antibody profile typically change?
• What testing method is commonly used to identify anti-Sm antibodies in patients suspected of SLE?
• All of the following hepatitis viruses are spread through blood or blood products except:
• Which immunoglobulin is primarily responsible for mucosal immunity?
• What laboratory analysis is most helpful for determining the number of mature T cells in suspected DiGeorge's syndrome?
• Which antigen is used in 4th-generation HIV tests that allows for earlier detection compared to antibody-only tests?
• How should an individual be designated if they test negative for C, D, and E antigens in complete Rh typing?
• What is indicated by a positive DAT using anti-IgG?
• Transfusion of an irradiated product is indicated in all of the following conditions except:
• What type of antibodies is indicated by a solid or homogeneous pattern in the immunofluorescence test for antinuclear antibodies?
• Who is the best candidate for a predeposit autologous donation?
• What should be the disposition of a donor red blood cell unit that contains an antibody?
• Which test is the most sensitive for detecting congenital syphilis?
• How is complement activity destroyed in vitro?
• What type of blood should a patient with a high titer of anti-Jkb antibodies receive?
• A hospital employee wants to donate blood three weeks after receiving the final dose of the hepatitis B vaccine. What are the expected results from her hepatitis screen, and will she be allowed to donate blood?
• Which type of nephelometry measures immune complex formation almost immediately after reagent has been added?
• Which antibody can cross the placenta and attach to infant cells?
• What type of proteins do monoclonal gammopathies predominantly involve?
• According to the Wiener nomenclature, how many closely linked loci determine the Rh antigens?
• What is an advantage of 4th-generation rapid HIV tests over earlier tests?
• How much anticoagulant would have to be removed from the collection bag given a donor who weighs 90 lb?
• What might happen if a patient is transfused with a blood unit that matches an antibody they have?
• What does the "M" component refer to in monoclonal gammopathies?
• How can the discrepancy between blood typing and secretor study results be resolved?
• Which method is least likely to provide a definitive result for the diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis?
• What should be done with an autologous blood unit if the laboratory system has the donor's married name and the unit has her hyphenated last name?
• What indicates a possible acute hemolytic reaction in a transfusion patient?
• Which complement component is found in both the classic and alternative pathways?
• What additional testing can confirm a group RNA status in a blood sample?
• What is a key feature of a perinuclear ANCA pattern?
• Which increase in antibody titer best indicates an acute infection?
• Why do Rh-negative women tend to have a positive antibody screen compared to Rh-positive women of childbearing age?
• For which maternal blood type is RhIg specifically indicated?
• What is the characteristic effect when antibody levels exceed the antigen levels in a quantitative RPR test?
• What outcome results from improper washing of a tube or well after adding the enzyme-antibody conjugate in an ELISA system?
• Which MHC class of molecule is necessary for antigen recognition by CD4-positive T cells?
• A pregnant woman has positive IgG and IgM rubella tests. What positive test would confirm a diagnosis of congenital rubella syndrome in her baby after birth?
• If a donor's blood unit is reactive for syphilis, what should be the next step if the confirmatory test is negative?
• Which blood type may be transfused to an AB-positive baby who has HDN caused by anti-D?
• What genotypes can produce the Bombay phenotype?
• Which of the following tests is crucial for diagnosing Mycoplasma pneumoniae infection?
• What immune elements are involved in a positive skin test for tuberculosis?
• What is a common cause of falsely elevated tumor markers after cancer treatment?
• What could explain a negative β-γ band in a subsequent serum protein electrophoresis after the initial finding of a band?
• What do rapid assays for influenza detect in specimens obtained from nasopharyngeal swabs?
• If a patient developed anti-C, anti-E, and anti-D antibodies, can compatible blood be found?
• Which fungal organism is best diagnosed using an antibody detection test?
• Which genotype is heterozygous for the C antigen?
• What does a negative test for anti-tissue transglutaminase in a suspected celiac disease patient suggest?
• Which test is typically used for early detection of HIV infection?
• What is the likely cause of serum incompatibility with O cells when a patient's RBCs show a negative reaction to anti-H lectin?
• Which serotype of HPV is primarily associated with cervical cancer?
• What is the significance of IgG avidity tests in assessing recent infections?
• What procedure should be performed next when screening cells, major crossmatch, autocontrol, and DAT (anti-IgG) are all positive?
• Which of the following patients would be a candidate for RhIg?
• Why might a patient with a weak D phenotype be at risk of forming anti-D antibodies when tested on the Ortho Provue system?
• Which condition is characterized by an IgM spike on an electrophoretic pattern?
• If a blood unit is leaking, what is the appropriate action to take according to standard procedures?
• What does a superantigen such as toxic shock syndrome toxin-1 (TSST-1) bind to during immune activation?
• In a scenario where a patient has a negative serological test for Lyme disease despite symptoms, what is the most likely explanation?
• Which test does NOT measure phagocyte function?
• What is the expected result for a child with humoral immunodeficiency after vaccination with diphtheria/tetanus?
• Which antibody persists in low-level carriers of hepatitis B virus?
• Which immunoglobulin appears in highest titer in the secondary immune response?
• Based on panel results, which antibody is most likely implicated if the pattern suggests?
• Which antibody is frequently seen in patients with warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia?
• Why might an antibody screen return negative for a patient with a known antibody history?
• What is the primary function of anti-RNA antibodies in immunology?
• When determining the cause of a faint IgM band in a patient, what should be considered?
• A patient developed a severe anaphylactic reaction after receiving fresh frozen plasma. What immunologic test would help to determine the cause?
• What is the role of Anti-HBs in hepatitis B infection?
• Which component of the adaptive immune system is formed in response to antigenic stimulation?
• What type of immune response is characterized as an anamnestic reaction?
• In a case where a patient has been found with an IgMκ paraprotein, what is a critical initial test to perform?
• What is the purpose of C3a, C4a, and C5a, the split products of the complement cascade?
• Currently, nucleic acid amplification testing (NAT) is performed to detect which viruses?
• What might a flow cytometry scattergram showing a dense population of cells between normal lymphoid and myeloid cells indicate?
• What is the most likely explanation for a patient with excessive amounts of polyclonal IgM and low concentrations of IgG and IgA?
• What is NOT a result of maternal antibodies affecting fetal blood cells?
• Which of the following is not routinely performed on a cord blood sample?
• Which of the following substances, sometimes used as a tumor marker, is increased two- or threefold in a normal pregnancy?
• A biological false-positive reaction is least likely with which test for syphilis?
• When is it unnecessary to consider RhIg for a Rh-negative mother?
• Which tests are considered confirmatory tests for HIV?
• What can be done to resolve an antibody mixture if one of them is anti-Lea and clinically insignificant?
• What defines a febrile nonhemolytic transfusion reaction?
• What bands characterize a positive Western Blot for HIV?
• For how long must compatibility results be available for audits according to regulations?
• What does a low CA-125 level after treatment indicate for a woman with ovarian cancer?
• Which pattern is indicative of antibodies associated with mixed connective tissue disease (MCTD)?
• What type of blood should be given to an individual with an anti-Leb that reacts 1+ at the IAT phase?
• Which test detects antibodies attached to tissues causing a type II cytotoxic reaction?
• What molecule on the surface of most T cells recognizes antigen?
• What observation is apparent with one of the antibodies present on a panel showing reactivity?
• What condition is represented by a patient showing strong agglutination with Anti-B beads but negating A reaction with A1 cells?
• What should be done if cord cells remain positive after washing and controlling for DAT?
• In diagnosing systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), which laboratory test is essential to confirm the disease?
• Which explaination is most likely for a 3+ incompatibility found during crossmatch for an A positive patient?
• What might account for the absence of Fya, Fyb, and Xga antigens in an individual?
• What type of transfusion reaction would likely occur 8 days after a hemolytic reaction?
• What role do complement anaphylatoxins play in immune response?
• What is the main testing problem with a strong anti-M?
• When a patient has been exposed to a high-frequency antigen, what issue may arise during transfusion?
• What is indicated if an ELISA fails to detect antibodies that an IFA has confirmed?
• Which laboratory test is essential for detecting antibody-antigen interactions in the blood bank?
• What type of analysis method uses a chromogenic substrate to measure antibody levels?
• What is the endpoint for the antistreptolysin O (ASO) latex agglutination assay?
• In an immunosuppressed patient with unexplained anemia, if a parvovirus IgM test is negative, what is the next recommended course of action?
• A donor bag is half filled during donation when the blood flow stops. Select the correct course of action.
• Which cells are primarily associated with Toll-like receptors?
• What symptoms suggest a febrile nonhemolytic transfusion reaction?
• How do autoantibodies typically affect compatibility testing results?
• Which additional test might be performed when diagnosing celiac disease despite negative antibody tests?
• What symptom is commonly associated with infectious mononucleosis in the context of serological testing?
• What is the most likely cause of positive anti-A and negative anti-B results with a strong reaction of 4+ in patient cells?
• In situations where a patient presents with a single positive band on a Western blot, what is the recommendation for reassessment?
• What is indicated by a positive result in both anti-A and anti-B tests for a patient?
• In panel results, which cells are identified as homozygous for C?
• For the detection of a virus associated with cervical cancer in a Papanicolaou smear, which assay is suitable?
• Which blood donor may donate on September 10th?
• What is the preferred method for testing HIV infection in infants born to HIV-positive mothers?
• What components(s) may be shipped together with FFP?
• What is the storage requirement for red cell units intended for transfusion?
• How does the presence of anti-K in a donor affect the compatibility test?
• A patient with RA and pneumonia tested positive for Mycoplasma pneumoniae at titer 1:32, but three weeks later, the titer remains unchanged. What best explains this?
• What is a special condition for the storage of platelets?
• When performing phenotyping, which antigens are typically analyzed?
• What is the expiration time for cryoprecipitate once pooled in an open system?
• What is the result of group A blood transfused to a group O patient?
• If a diffuse dark band appears in an IFE test, what does this indicate?
• All of the following are advantages of using single-donor platelets as opposed to random donor platelets, except:
• Which organs are considered the primary lymphoid organs where immunocompetent cells originate and mature?
• At what minimum age can a person generally make an allogeneic whole-blood donation?
• Which immunoglobulin is involved in allergic reactions?
• What are the compatibility requirements for an autologous unit?
• If an EIA screening test for anti-HIV-1/2 is reactive, but retesting is nonreactive, what is the donor's status?
• When testing HIV in a high-risk individual, what is the recommended time frame for follow-up testing after an initial negative result?
• Interpret the results showing IgG and IgM antibodies to viral capsid antigen (VCA) are positive.
• Why is it important to follow the instructions for the slide agglutination test?
• Which test, other than serological markers, is most consistently elevated in viral hepatitis?
• What may cause a positive reaction with anti-B while being negative for A1 cells?
• If a unit of packed RBCs is split using an open system, what must be done with the second half unit?
• Select the best donor for a man, blood type AB, in need of a kidney transplant.
• What outcome indicates a negative result in a complement fixation test?
• Tests to identify infection with HIV fall into which general classification types?
• What method for HIV identification is considered a signal amplification technique?
• When a Western blot or ELISA is positive for all controls and samples, what is the most likely cause?
• What is NOT a reason for a positive DAT on cord blood cells of a newborn?
• What effect does an enzyme panel have on Duffy antibodies?
• Which blood component is primarily used to treat hypofibrinogenemia?
• To confirm the presence of anti-Jka antibodies, which method would be least effective?
• Which tumor is most commonly associated with elevated levels of AFP?
• Which blood products are indicated for a cancer patient with a hemoglobin of 8 g/dL and a severe infection?
• Which of the following is used in rapid slide tests for the detection of rheumatoid factors?
• How can you remove interfering cold agglutinins from a test sample?
• Should an A-negative woman who has just had a miscarriage receive RhIg?
• What should be done for a patient with anti-Jka history, type O positive, and negative screen?
• Which procedure would help to distinguish between an anti-e and anti-Fya in an antibody mixture?
• Why is testing for Rh antigens and antibodies different from ABO testing?
• Which vaccination type carries no deferral period for blood donation?
• How should the results be interpreted when ELISA is positive, repeat ELISA is negative, and Western blot shows no bands?
• Which antibodies are likely implicated in a patient with a positive antibody screen at the AHG phase?
• Which method, classically used for HLA-D typing, is often used to determine the compatibility between a living organ donor and recipient?
• What type of RBCs can be transfused to an A2 person with anti-A1?
• What molecule is produced by HLA class III genes?
• What is the proper action for a nurse if a blood unit is returned but left outside of refrigeration?
• How often would one expect to find the antibody corresponding to the k antigen?
• Which pattern of reactivity is characteristic of the Donath-Landsteiner antibody in PCH?
• In a patient with unexplained joint pain and a positive ANA test, what is the appropriate follow-up?
• What is the most likely explanation when all positive cold agglutinin tubes remain positive after 37°C incubation?
• Which blood group is determined by the ability to produce anti-H antibodies?
• Which factor is most likely responsible for a reaction when a B negative patient receives packed red cells?
• In a case with anti-A = 0, anti-B = 0, and anti-A,B = 0, how should you report the blood type?
• What characterizes a type I hypersensitivity reaction?
• If a patient has a negative autocontrol, what does this indicate about potential autoantibodies?
• If all forward and reverse ABO results as well as the autocontrol are positive, what should be done?
• Which substrate would show cytoplasmic speckling in a specimen with a perinuclear staining pattern during an ANCA immunofluorescent assay?
• What testing is done for exchange transfusion when the mother's serum contains an alloantibody?
• Which technique would not help in reducing the reactivity of anti-M antibodies in serological testing?
• Which is most likely a positive Western blot result for infection with HIV?
• What is the function of the complement component C5?
• Which of the following is NOT a mode of transmission for hepatitis C?
• What type of antigen is used in the RPR card test?
• What constitutes a diagnosis of viral hepatitis?
• Which condition may result from a deficiency in the C5 complement component?
• What techniques are necessary for weak D testing?
• Which test is most useful for diagnosing a vertically transmitted HIV infection in a newborn?
• What is the role of Rh immune globulin (RhIg) in pregnancy?
• What does a minor crossmatch involve?
• If only anti-HBs is positive, which of the following can be ruled out?
• In what scenario is autologous blood donation beneficial?
• During a transfusion, if a patient's vital signs fluctuate significantly, which reaction might be suspected?
• What is the role of cardiolipin in the RPR test?
• Which immunoglobulin(s) help(s) initiate the classic complement pathway?
• When a donor's EIA test is reactive twice and then negative in the next donation, what should be the conclusion?
• What complicates laboratory diagnosis in cases of Lyme disease?
• What additional tests should be performed for tube typing if a patient types as AB and appears Rh positive?
• A patient with suspected autoimmune disease showed a mixed pattern of fluorescence in immunofluorescence microscopy. What procedure would best help determine the antibody profile?
• Why is testing a pregnant woman for weak D not required?
• How is an individual with only the d antigen classified in the Rh system?
• If HDN is caused by maternal anti-K, what is the most appropriate management approach?
• What is the primary antigen detected by the FTA-ABS test?
• In which type of genetic inheritance does a father transmit a trait only to his daughters?
• What is the typical intervention for a mother showing early signs of severe hemolytic disease?
• What type of blood should be given to a 55-year-old male patient who is AB negative and needs leukocyte-reduced red blood cells?
• Which of the following is a characteristic of tumor markers?
• What is a common characteristic of the reverse blood typing procedure?
• What may be done for a mother with rising anti-E titers and beginning signs of fetal distress?
• Which assay is recommended for detecting serum-free light chains in multiple myeloma patients?
• Which tests are considered screening tests for HIV?
• Which blood group contains the least amount of H antigen?
• Which hepatitis B markers should be performed on blood products?
• Which hepatitis marker would indicate a new infection if found in a patient?
• A patient positive for weak D also shows anti-D in his serum. What could be the issue?
• A patient with ovarian cancer has elevated CA 15-3 but low CA-125 and CA-50 after chemotherapy. What is the most likely explanation?
• What does a blood group discrepancy suggest in a patient’s serum sample?
• Which assay is typically used to monitor treatment response in cryptococcal infections?
• If all tubes except the negative control are positive for cold agglutinins, what does this indicate?
• What is the main role of IgG antibodies in the immune response?
• What is the explainable solution for the presence of anti-M in a patient serum?
• What ABO type is considered the universal donor?
• An IFE performed on a serum sample showed a narrow dark band in the lanes containing anti-γ and anti-λ. What does this result indicate?
• What is the most likely explanation when a patient has clinical signs of viral hepatitis but tests negative for hepatitis A IgM, hepatitis B surface antigen, and hepatitis C Ab?
• Which serum antibody response typically characterizes the primary stage of syphilis?
• In a transplant patient showing rejection signs 8 days post-transplant, what immune elements are most likely involved?
• N-acetyl-D-galactosamine reacts with which lectin?
• What explains a positive DAT in a case of transfusion reaction involving anti-Jkb?
• What does the 3+3 rule ascertain in antibody identification?
• What is the role of the TP-PA test in the context of syphilis testing?
• Which immunoglobulin cross links mast cells to release histamine?
• How is HLA typing used in the investigation of genetic diseases?
• How many units of RBCs are generally required to raise a hemoglobin level from 6 g/dL to 12 g/dL?
• Which hepatitis B marker is the best indicator of early acute infection?
• Which statement about blood group genotypes is correct?
• A patient with suspected Bruton's X-linked immunodeficiency syndrome would likely show a decrease in which test result?
• What is a potential complication of not irradiating blood products for an immunocompromised patient?
• In a scenario where screening cells and major crossmatch are positive on IS only, and the autocontrol is negative, what should be identified?
• How is the strength of attraction between a single antibody and antigen molecule characterized?
• What is the most likely cause of a positive DAT and hemoglobinemia after blood transfusion in a patient with a known anti-Fya?
• What happens when the enzyme's action is not stopped within the specified time limits in an ELISA test?
• What is the role of the CD25 marker on T regulator cells?
• What markers are typically found on mature, peripheral helper T cells?
• What does the combination of a positive HIV-1,2 ELISA, indeterminate HIV-1 Western blot, and negative HIV-1 p24 antigen indicate?
• What is the mechanism by which anti-Fya antibodies affect a fetus?
• Meiosis results in gametes containing how many copies of DNA?
• Why is a chemiluminescent immunoassay (CIA) chosen for detecting certain low-concentration analytes?
• What is a potential consequence of performing a transfusion without proper crossmatching?
• What should the medical laboratory scientist do when a nurse requests to take 50 mcg from a 300 mcg syringe of RhIg?
• During a transfusion, if a patient develops an anaphylactic, nonhemolytic reaction, which transfused substance most likely caused it?
• What procedure should be taken for a patient with a prior history of anti-Jkb antibodies when ordering blood?
• What does crossed lines between wells in an Ouchterlony plate indicate?
• Which hepatitis antibody confers immunity against reinfection with hepatitis B virus?
• What may be done to RBCs before transfusion to a patient with cold agglutinin disease?
• Which symptom in a young child may indicate an immunodeficiency syndrome?
• What immune response is primarily associated with IgE antibodies?
• What is the importance of keeping serum stored at 4°C for no longer than 48 hours?
• What is the main purpose of an antibody identification panel in pregnancy?
• What should be done when an EIA screening test for HTLV I/II is repeatedly reactive but the confirmatory test is negative?
• Which CD marker is present during the first stage of T cell development?
• Which technology may report an Rh-weak D positive as Rh negative?
• What is the correct maturation sequence for T cells in the thymus?
• What term describes the situation when an antibody reacts more strongly with homozygous cells than heterozygous cells?
• Which combination of antibody tests may indicate recent vaccination or early primary infection for rubella?
• Blood products are tested for which virus before being transfused to newborns?
• Which test measures the coating of red cells by antibodies in hemolytic transfusion reactions?
• Within what time frame must platelet concentrates be prepared from collected whole blood?
• Which region determines whether an immunoglobulin molecule can fix complement?
• What should be done if a mixed-field reaction is seen with anti-A in a type and crossmatch?
• Why is a Western blot considered more specific than ELISA in confirming HIV infections?
• What procedure would be most suitable for distinguishing anti-I antibodies from other similar antibodies in a recent transfusion patient?
• How does the HLA typing process assist in organ transplantation?
• Which of the following statements is true concerning the MN genotype?
• Which hepatitis virus is most commonly associated with chronic liver disease?
• A renal transplant recipient is found to have rising creatinine levels. Which organism is primarily identified through a Urine PCR assay?
• Kernicterus is caused by the effects of what substance?
• What method may be used for tissue typing instead of serological HLA typing?
• What is the phenomenon called when alleles situated in close proximity on a chromosome associate more than expected from individual allelic frequencies?
• How might a mixture of antibodies in serum be better characterized?
• For panel results, which antibodies could not be ruled out?
• Which antibody is typically found in the serum of a patient exhibiting TRALI?
• What is the most likely reason for a multiparous woman testing positive for HIV by Western blot?
• What could be the cause of the ABO discrepancy in a 28-week pregnant patient showing anti-A 3+ and anti-B 4+?
• What substance is detected by the rapid plasma reagin (RPR) and Venereal Disease Research Laboratory (VDRL) tests for syphilis?
• Which of the following serial dilutions contains an incorrect factor?
• What would a patient deficient in the C3 complement component be expected to mount a normal response to?
• What is the most likely interpretation of a reactive RPR and VDRL but a nonreactive MHA-TP?
• What immunofluorescence pattern suggests the need for ENA testing by Ouchterlony immunodiffusion?
• An ANA test on HEp-2 cells shows nucleolar staining in interphase cells. What is the most likely cause of this staining pattern?
• What action is required when a 24-week pregnant woman has a positive antibody screen?
• What action should be taken if a blood donor reports high-risk behavior after donating blood that was transfused to a recipient?
• What might the results indicate if an HIV test shows a positive result, but the patient shows no clinical symptoms?
• In the case of a positive DAT, what could indicate a previous sensitization to a transfusion-related antigen?
• What is the priority intervention for a significantly anemic newborn resulting from hemolytic disease?
• Which donor could be accepted for whole blood donation?
• In cases of suspected rheumatoid arthritis, which laboratory test is specifically recommended to confirm diagnosis?
• Which disease is most commonly associated with a high titer of anti-Sm (anti-Smith) antibody?
• Which method is the most sensitive for quantitation of AFP?
• What does a single band at gp160 indicate when interpreting a Western blot for HIV-1?
• What test is primarily used to detect circulating immune complexes in serum for autoimmune diseases such as rheumatoid arthritis?
• Should an O-negative mother receive RhIg if her newborn's positive DAT is due to immune anti-A?
• Which test is most likely to be positive in the tertiary stage of syphilis?
• In a transfusion situation where a patient suddenly expires with no obvious signs, which conclusion is most likely?
• Which group of antibodies is commonly found as cold agglutinins?
• In which type of disorders would you expect decreased levels of C3, C4, and CH50?
• What is the significance of a positive autocontrol in antibody testing?
• Which condition is likely responsible for negative Anti-A and Anti-B results with 4+ reaction on A1 cells?
• In panel results, which antibody specificity is suspected when the pattern indicates something at IAT?
• Which offspring is not possible from a mother who is R1R2 and a father who is R1r?
• What is the primary pathophysiological cause of anaphylactic reactions during transfusions?
• Which immunoglobulin appears first in the primary immune response?
• What action should be taken next for a patient with a positive antibody screen and history of recent transfusion?
• If anti-K reacts 3+ with a donor cell with genotype KK and 2+ with genotype Kk, what is this an example of?
• Complete blood count is most helpful in diagnosing which disorder?
• How is the titer determined in an antibody dilution test?
• Which of the following cell surface molecules is classified as an MHC class II antigen?
• Which region of the immunoglobulin molecule can bind antigen?
• What presents the greatest challenge in developing an HIV vaccine?
• What type of transfusion reaction is indicated if a patient experiences hypoxia and tachypnea after receiving blood?
• What CD4:CD8 ratio is commonly associated with a patient diagnosed with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS)?
• Which statement concerning non-Forssman heterophile antibody is true?
• In population genetics, what does p2 represent in the Hardy-Weinberg formula?
• What is a likely reason for a discrepancy in forward blood typing results?
• All of the following are immunologic functions of complement except:
• Which antibody was detected in a pregnant woman that causes fetal distress and reacts at the IAT phase?
• What is the primary use of laboratory tests for antibodies to islet cells in insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus (IDDM)?
• In the radial immunodiffusion (RID) test system, where is the antisera located?
• What antibodies are formed by a Bombay individual?
• A woman begins to breathe rapidly while donating blood. Choose the correct course of action.
• What is a common characteristic of anti-I antibodies?
• Which antibody gives a refractile mixed-field appearance?
• What should be the next step when a patient types as O positive with agglutination in both screen and red cells?
• What happens during the precipitation reaction when the concentration of antigen surpasses the capacity of available antibody?
• When can rejuvenated RBCs be transfused after preparation?
• What should be done with an incompatible donor red blood cell unit that has a positive DAT?
• Which component is the best choice for patients with chronic granulomatous disease?
• Can a crossmatch be performed on a patient sample drawn two days prior?
• If a fetal screen is negative on an O-negative mother with an O-positive infant, what should be the next step?
• How long must a recipient sample be kept in the blood bank following compatibility testing?
• What does the presence of hemolysis in a complement fixation test indicate?
• What is the first sign of hepatitis B infection?
• What parameters are considered in the classification system for HIV infection?
• What is a common laboratory test to screen for autoimmune diseases?
• What does the genotype —/— represent in the Rh system?
• What is the most likely cause if cells type negative for all HLA antigens in a complement-dependent cytotoxicity assay?
• A cell that is not actively dividing is characterized as being in which phase?